French fiction -- 19th century; Sand, George, 1804-1876
It has been asserted that George Sand's works, or many of them, are
repugnant to the sense of morality. Before saying anything in
refutation, let us present the creed of the author in her own words,
written to her friend, the Comtesse d'Agoult, in 1836: "To rush into the
bosom of Mother Nature, to consider her really as a _mother_ and a
_sister_; to resist with all obstinacy the proud and wicked; to be meek
and lowly with the wretched ones; to weep over the poor man's misery,
and hope for the fall of the rich as my only consolation; to believe in
no other God than He who preaches justice and equality to men; to
venerate what is _good_; to judge severely what is only _strong_; to
live on nearly nothing; to give almost everything, in order to
reëstablish primitive equality and to restore divine institutions--such
is the religion I would proclaim in my humble retreat." Nor was this
creed belied, even to the giving "almost everything"; for we find Madame
Sand writing to Monsieur Ulbach, in November, 1869: "I have earned by my
writings about a million, but I have not laid aside a single _sou_. I
gave away all, except twenty thousand francs, which I invested two years
ago, so that if I fall ill my children will not be put to too much
expense; and yet I am not sure that I shall be able to keep even that
little fund, for I may meet with people who may need it more
imperatively than myself."
But to return to the charge we have mentioned, which is still made in
some quarters, and which, at the most, will apply less to matter than to
manner. Let each individual test the question by his own sentiment and
judgment. Who has put down one of George Sand's books and felt himself
less pure from the reading? Nay, more, who has gone from its perusal
without a quickened admiration of virtue and a corresponding dislike of
vice? If our sympathies are frequently aroused for the transgressor, is
this something of which to be ashamed in itself? If we look at the
offences laid to the charge of the author, is there not found a manifest
purpose on her part to present a victim who will arouse interest enough
to give force to the author's denunciations of the system she would
overthrow, and to whose charge she would ascribe the offence of her
victim? Are these victims impure of heart and vicious of purpose? The
charge in question is mainly directed at _Indiana_, _Valentine_, and
_Lélia_. Let us see what Madame Sand says in a letter in 1842: "I find
society abandoned to the most dreadful disorder, and in the front rank
of the iniquities to which I see it given over are the relations of the
sexes, which I regard as being regulated in the most unjust and
ridiculous manner.... Love, fidelity, and motherhood are,
notwithstanding, the most necessary, the most important, and the most
sacred things in a woman's life." Her attacks were directed, be it
understood, not against marriage, but against the debasing and unjust
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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