Sources of the Synoptic GospelsPatton, Carl S. (Carl Safford)
Religion
Sources of the Synoptic Gospels
Patton, Carl S. (Carl Safford)
Bible. Gospels -- Criticism, interpretation, etc.
In the saying concerning the danger of riches (Mk x, 17-31; Mt xix, 16-30;
Lk xviii, 18-30) Mark makes Jesus say, "Why callest thou me good?" Matthew
changes this to "Why askest thou me concerning that which is good?" tho
his following words, "There is One who is good," betray the fact that he
had Mark's reading before him. Matthew shows his Jewish affinities by
making Jesus say that the questioner may "enter into life," by keeping the
commandments. Both Matthew and Luke omit one commandment which Mark
quotes, because it is not found in the Decalogue. Matthew changes Mark's
order of the commandments to agree with the Old Testament. Matthew, having
called the questioner a youth, omits from his reply to Jesus the words,
"from my youth up." Both omit Mark's vs. 24, which is practically a
duplicate of the previous verse. Luke, having included the idea of
"sisters" in his word for family, omits sisters, but, with his
characteristic interest in women, adds "wife."
In the third prediction of sufferings (Mk x, 32-34; Mt xx, 17-19; Lk
xviii, 31-34) the agreement between Mark and Matthew is very close
throughout. The only agreement of Matthew and Luke against Mark is in
their substitution of εἶπεν for λέγει. Both Matthew and Luke change Mark's
"after three days" to "on the third day." Three words in Mark's vs. 34 are
reproduced in Luke alone; ἀναστήσεται, ἀποκτενοῦσιν, ἐμπτύσουσιν. Matthew
has added καὶ σταυρῶσαι.
In the request for seats in the kingdom (Mk x, 35-45; Mt xx, 20-28) Mark
makes James and John ask Jesus directly; Luke omits the incident; Matthew
puts the burden of the ambitious request upon the mother instead of upon
the sons; tho he betrays the fact that he is remaking Mark, by making
Jesus direct his reply to the men.
In the healing of Bartimaeus (Mk x, 46-52; Mt xx, 29-34; Lk xviii, 35-43)
Mark says "the son of Timaeus," perhaps in explanation of the Aramaic
name. Matthew specifies two men instead of one, giving no names; it has
been suggested that he may have been misled by Mark's "Bartimaeus" and
"the son of Timaeus," tho the Jewish affinity of Matthew's Gospel makes
this unlikely. Since "the son of Timaeus" did not serve to identify the
man to their readers, Matthew and Luke omit the phrase. Mark's graphic
statement that the man threw off his cloak and ran to Jesus was unsuited
to the dignity of the Later Gospels. Matthew and Luke again substitute the
Greek κύριε for Mark's ῥαββουνί. They omit his ὕπαγε, which seems out of
place.[41]
Public-domain text, read in full here on John Shaqi.
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