Now to return to Sonnet 105, which has always been a stumbling block to commentators, as it clearly was intended to explain some mystery or enigma connected with the author of the plays. I have never yet noticed any reasonably satisfactory explanation of this Sonnet. Why even the person who wrote on the religion of Shakespeare claims it as a sort of William Shakespeare’s Athanasian creed, and meant to express a belief in the Trinity, “three in one!” “_All’s one_” I noticed may be met with often; but as for “_one_,” it crops up everywhere. In a single scene in a single page you may count in places six “_ones_” (“Henry V.” passim), in many cases “lugged” in where the sense and context show it would be far better otherwise, and commentators take trouble to emend it. This is the key to his broad hint (Sonnet lxxvi.), “Why write I still all ‘_one_,’ ever the same . . . that every word doth almost tell my name.” But, conjoined with his impress “_one_,” there is also a play upon his “armories,” the Sherley Trinity of virtues. I find in Lansdowne MSS., No. 49, leaf 28, which I have verified, “That armories were antiently introduced to distinguish noble and illustrious families. The house of Shirley of great estimation, ‘Noble light,’ ‘Gold,’ it cannot be corrupted, or the value diminished by earth, water, air, or fire. Gold and sunbeams signifies in virtues, alluding to the Shirley family in particular, ‘Field of gold,’ faith, charitie, wisdom, and fidelitie, and many others, all of which their arms are the true emblems.” There are several pages of this sort in MSS. of British Museum relating to the Shirley family. May not this be the Trinity of virtues mentioned in that puzzling Sonnet 105, “Three themes in _one_”? {36} If Anthony Sherley did not write the plays and sonnets, why does the writer chronicle his every movement? (_passim._) Why does he give an exact account of his family history (Yorkshire Tragedy), their ruin and his own banishment? Why again in Richard II. Act ii. sc. 3, transforming it to himself in a figure, give an account of their harsh treatment by Elizabeth? Why does that same company act the Brothers Sherley on the stage as well as the Yorkshire Tragedy (quarto W. Shakespeare)? Why in all other plays but that alone are there _stage_ names, but in this play when acted (as he wishes it not so to be), a Sherley had interest enough to get his way? Why are all the scenes of the plays laid at places where Anthony Sherley tarries? Why does Kemp (with “good new plaies”), one of this _same_ company, go to meet him at places where he is then known to be, “over the Alpes,” “Venice,” “Emperor of Germany” (Nine Daies’ Wonder).