A Commentary to Kant's 'Critique of Pure Reason' — Kant — John Shaqi
A Commentary to Kant's 'Critique of Pure Reason'
Kant · en
=Mind= (_Gemüt_) is a neutral term without metaphysical implications.[353]
It is practically equivalent to the term which is substituted for it in
the next paragraph, power of representation (_Vorstellungsfähigkeit_).
=Representation= (_Vorstellung_) Kant employs in the widest possible
meaning. It covers any and every cognitive state. The definition here
given of =sensibility=--“the capacity (receptivity) to obtain
representations through the mode in which we are affected by
objects”--is taken directly over from the _Dissertation_.[354] In this
definition, as in that of intuition, Kant, without argument or question,
postulates the existence of independently existing objects. The
existence of given sensations presupposes the existence of things in
themselves. Sensibility is spoken of as the source both of objects and
of intuitions. This is legitimate since object and intuition mutually
imply one another; the latter is the apprehension of the former. By
“objects” is obviously meant what in the third paragraph is called the
matter of appearances, _i.e._ sensations in their objective aspect, as
qualities or contents. The term “object” is similarly employed in the
last line of this first paragraph.
=Understanding= (_Verstand_) is defined only in its logical or discursive
employment. Kant wisely defers all reference to its more fundamental
synthetic activities. _In us_ (_bei uns_) is an indirect reference to
the possibility of intellectual (non-sensuous) intuition which is
further developed in other parts of the _Aesthetic_.[355] Sensuous
intuition is due to affection by an object. In intellectual intuition
the mind must produce the object in the act of apprehending it.[356]
Kant’s definition of intuition applies, as already noted, only to
empirical intuition. He proceeds[357] to define the relation in which
=sensation= (_Empfindung_) stands to empirical intuition. What he here
says amounts to the assertion that through sensation intuition acquires
its object, _i.e._ that _sensation is the content of intuition_. And
that being so, it is also through sensation that empirical intuition
acquires its relation to the object (= thing in itself) which causes it.
(That would seem to be the meaning of the ambiguous second sentence; but
it still remains uncertain whether the opposition intended is to pure or
to intellectual intuition.) If this interpretation of the paragraph be
correct, sensation is counted as belonging exclusively to the content
side of subjective apprehension. But Kant views sensation in an even
more definite manner than he here indicates. Though sensation is given,
it likewise involves a reaction of the mind.
“Whatever is sensuous in knowledge depends upon the subject’s
peculiar nature, in so far as it is capable of this or that
modification upon the presence of the object.”[358]