It may be objected that to attribute to Kant at any time the physical form of the theory is to accuse him of an impossibly crude confusion between things in themselves and the spatial world, and that he can never have thought that the cause of sensation, being as it is outside the mind, is spatial. But the answer is to be found in the fact that the problem just referred to as occupying Kant's attention in the _Aesthetic_ is only a problem at all so long as the cause of sensation is thought of as a physical body. For the problem 'How do we, beginning with mere sensation, come to know a spatial and temporal world?' is only a problem so long as it is supposed that the cause of sensation is a spatial and temporal world or a part of it, and that this world is what we come to know. If the cause of sensation, as being beyond the mind, is held to be unknowable and so not known to be spatial or temporal, the problem has disappeared. Corroboration is given by certain passages[11] in the _Critique_ which definitely mention 'the senses', a term which refers to bodily organs, and by others[12] to which meaning can be given only if they are taken to imply that the objects which affect our sensibility are not unknown things in themselves, but things known to be spatial. Even the use of the plural in the term 'things in themselves' implies a tendency to identify the unknowable reality beyond the mind with bodies in space. For the implication that different sensations are due to different things in themselves originates in the view that different sensations are due to the operation of different spatial bodies. [11] E. g. B. 1 init., M. 1 init., and B. 75 fin., M. 46, lines 12, 13 [for 'the sensuous faculty' should be substituted 'the senses']. [12] E. g. B. 42, lines 11, 12; M. 26, line 13; A. 100, Mah. 195 ('even in the absence of the object'). Cf. B. 182-3, M. 110-1 (see pp. 257-8, and note p. 257), and B. 207-10, M. 126-8 (see pp. 263-5).